![]() We will get into the detail of those verses in a bit but the question now is simply: why does it seem like the torment is originating from God when to torment is against His character? To answer that we need to determine the correct meaning of the word torment. “And the devil that deceived them was cast into the lake of fire and brimstone, where the beast and the false prophet are, and shall be tormented day and night for ever and ever.” (Rev 20:10) “Then shall he say also unto them on the left hand, Depart from me, ye cursed, into everlasting fire, prepared for the devil and his angels:” (Matt 25:41) What is “the time” that is referred to? It must be a time when devils (evil angels) will be tormented. The suggestion is that Jesus would torment them. “And, behold, they cried out, saying, What have we to do with thee, Jesus, thou Son of God? art thou come hither to torment us before the time?” (Matt 8:29) We need to ask: “is it the work of God to inflict suffering or to relieve it? God does not send disease or cause people to be possessed or lunatic or paralyzed. “Jesus answered, neither hath this man sinned, nor his parents: but as a result of his suffering the works of God will be made manifest in him.” (John 9:3) “But ye, brethren, are not in darkness, that that day should overtake you as a thief.” (1 Thess 5:4) “For the flesh lusteth against the Spirit, and the Spirit against the flesh: and these are contrary the one to the other: so that ye cannot do the things that ye would.” (Gal 5:17) But “hina” can also express result as in these examples: Then it could only have been God Who arranged for him to be born blind. “he was born blind in order for the works of God to be manifest” “he was born blind so that the works of God could be manifest” If it meant that in this case, it could say: The word “that” is from the Greek “hina” (G2443). And his disciples asked him, saying, Master, who did sin, this man, or his parents, that he was born blind? Jesus answered, Neither hath this man sinned, nor his parents: but that the works of God should be made manifest in him.” (John 9:1-3)ĭoes that sound like his blindness was planned for a purpose? “And as Jesus passed by, he saw a man which was blind from his birth. Would it make sense that Jesus would heal or take away any of those conditions if they were purposely put there by God? Wouldn’t that be undoing His Father’s work? That has been suggested as in this verse: Of the five categories, the nature of “torments” is possibly the least obvious. “And his fame went throughout all Syria: and they brought unto him all sick people that were taken with divers diseases and torments, and those which were possessed with devils, and those which were lunatick, and those that had the palsy and he healed them.” (Matt 4:24) Torment is associated with a variety of conditions: Is Physical Torment Such as Blindness from God? “Pained,” in that verse, is from the same Greek word usually translated as “tormented.” Of course, there is also symbolic significance to that verse. “And she being with child cried, travailing in birth, and pained to be delivered.” (Rev 12:2) Let’s examine scripture to determine the extent to which God might be involved in the torment people suffer. Torment can be physical or mental/emotional.ĭifferences between the two models are not so much about the meaning of torment as it is about the source of it. ![]() Torment covers a great range from merely bothersome to extreme pain. That which gives pain, vexation or misery. Extreme pain anguish the utmost degree of misery, either of body or mind.)Ģ. Torment in the final judgment will be of the mental sort coming from the conscience. In some belief systems, that torment (in flames) is eternal.īiblical Healing Model – Torment comes as a natural consequence of sin. Traditional Legal Model – Torment will, in the end, be applied by God to the lost as punishment for unrepentant and unpaid-for sin. ![]() Understanding of the character of God and the Gospel. Correctly understanding these terms leads to a better
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